الجواب وبالله التوفيق      

On the condition that the detail provided in your question is true, as per your sworn statement, if you have not given divorce to your wife then no divorce has occurred. But in this regard your wife had asked for the fatwa stating that you issued her verbal divorce 15 times and each time you issued her 3 divorces. Based on her statement the fatwa was issued that due to your uttering of 3 divorces on the very 1^stoccasion, she became مطلقہ مغلظہ(Divorced) and حرام(Haraam) on you.

However, due to your sworn statement, قضاء"the حکمis that if you didn’t issue divorce then the divorce didn’t occur either. But if the reality is on the contrary, as is apparent from the statement of your wife, then due to your swearing or we giving the fatwa, the حرام(Haraam) doesn’t become حلال(Halaal) and the حلال(Halaal) doesn’t become حرام(Haraam). This is the matter of فیما بینک و بین اللہ(between you and Allaah).

قال تعالی، وَاِنۡ يَّكُ كَاذِبًا فَعَلَيۡهِ كَذِبُهٗ ؕ وَاِنۡ يَّكُ صَادِقًا يُّصِبۡكُمۡ بَعۡضُ الَّذِىۡ يَعِدُكُمۡ ۚ اِنَّ اللّٰهَ لَا يَهۡدِىۡ مَنۡ هُوَ مُسۡرِفٌ كَذَّابٌ‏ ﴿سورہ المومن آیت ۲۸

“If he is a liar, then his lie will fall back on himself; and if he is truthful, then some of that punishment of which he warns you will afflict you. Indeed Allah doesn’t give guidance to the one who is a transgressor, a liar”. (Surah Al Mo’min, Ayat 28)

 واللہاعلم بالصواب